Arianism: Truth Or Heresy?
Part 3

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Author : Bill Kochman
Publish : Feb. 25, 2026
Update : Feb. 25, 2026
Parts : 04

Synopsis:

A Difference Between LORD And Lord, Son Of God In Psalm Two, Jesus' Defeat Of His Enemies In Both Old And New Testaments, Unbelieving Jews Have No Excuse For Not Believing In Jesus, Was The Entire Godhead Present During The Creation Of The World?, Sons Of God Rejoiced Upon Beholding The Creation Of The World, Safety In The Multitude Of Counsellors, Creative Power Of The Holy Spirit, Mary's Miraculous Pregnancy, Clear Similarity Between Mary's Conception And Spirit Of God That Moved Upon The Face Of The Waters In Genesis, Hesitancy Of Some Christians To View Elohyim As Being Plural In Genesis, Potential Danger Of Jesus Is God Deception And The One World Religionists, Plural Intensive-Singular Meaning Or Plural Of Majesty, Why Jews Use Elohyim In Singular Form When Referring To God, My Personal View Regarding Using Elohyim In Singular Form In Genesis, Recap Of My Views, Psalm 2:7 And My Personal Understanding Of The Only Begotten Son Of God, Hebrews 1:5-6 And The Nativity In The Gospel Of Luke, How The Apostle Paul Interprets Psalm 2:7: Jesus' Rebirth When He Was Resurrected From The Dead, Apostle Paul's Meaning Of "Firstborn Of Every Creature", Jesus' Fulfilled Rebirth Message He Had Given To Nicodemus, We Will Have Resurrected Bodies Similar To Jesus


Continuing our discuss from part two, those verses in Daniel and Revelation 5 are NOT the only Bible verses which mention Jesus being the Son of God, and receiving His kingdom in God the Father's predetermined time. In fact, my friends, Psalm Two likewise describes God the Father, and His beloved Son, Jesus. For any of my readers who aren't aware of this point, according to Christian beliefs, in the Old Testament, when "LORD" is written in all uppercase letters, it is actually a substitute for "YHWH" -- which is the always unspoken Hebrew Tetragrammaton -- and it always signifies God the Father. In other instances, the word "Lord" -- with only the uppercase "L" -- is translated from the Hebrew word "Adonai", and can indicate Jesus Christ. In Psalm Two, verse two, the phrase "his anointed" is referring to Jesus Christ, as we see below:

"Why do the heathen rage, and the people imagine a vain thing? The kings of the earth set themselves, and the rulers take counsel together, against the LORD, and against his anointed, saying, Let us break their bands asunder, and cast away their cords from us. He that sitteth in the heavens shall laugh: the Lord shall have them in derision. Then shall he speak unto them in his wrath, and vex them in his sore displeasure. Yet have I set my king upon my holy hill of Zion. I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee. Ask of me, and I shall give thee the heathen for thine inheritance, and the uttermost parts of the earth for thy possession. Thou shalt break them with a rod of iron; thou shalt dash them in pieces like a potter's vessel. Be wise now therefore, O ye kings: be instructed, ye judges of the earth. Serve the LORD with fear, and rejoice with trembling. Kiss the Son, lest he be angry, and ye perish from the way, when his wrath is kindled but a little. Blessed are all they that put their trust in him."
Psalms 2:1-12, KJV


So here again we see Jesus Christ defeating his enemies and coming into His kingdom in the pages of the OLD TESTAMENT. As some of my readers will no doubt know, we see this very same amazing story of Jesus defeating His enemies for the glory of His Father multiple times in the Scriptures. We've seen it in Daniel 2 where Jesus is represented by a stone. We have clearly seen it in Psalm 2. We see it in the Battle of Armageddon in the Book of Revelation. But do you know where else we see it? In verses I already shared with you in part one of this same series. Consider those verses again:

"Then cometh the end, when he [Jesus] shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he [Jesus] shall have put down all rule and all authority and power. For he [Jesus] must reign, till he [Jesus] hath put all enemies under his [under Jesus'] feet. The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death. For he [God the Father] hath put all things under his [under Jesus'] feet. But when he [God the Father] saith all things are put under him [under Jesus], it is manifest that he [God the Father] is excepted, which did put all things under him [under Jesus]. And when all things shall be subdued unto him, [unto Jesus] then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him [unto God the Father] that put all things under him [under Jesus], that God may be all in all."
1 Corinthians 15:24-28, KJV


Thus, as I already said, in addition to all of the hundreds of other Messianic prophecies which are scattered throughout the Old Testament, all of these verses I have just shown to you reveal why the unbelieving Jews have no excuse for not believing in Jesus. Their very own Scriptures tell them all about Him, yet sadly, most Jews turn a blind eye to all of the prophetic evidence. However, the Jews are definitely not alone when it comes to resisting the plural meaning of the Hebrew word "elohyim", and refusing to embrace the idea that it clearly indicates that there were multiple creators in the Book of Genesis.

In fact, at this point, I will even dare say that the entire Godhead -- all three of them -- were present for the amazing act of creation in the Book of Genesis. After all, according to Job 38:4-7, all the spiritual sons of God shouted for joy as they watched the actual creation in progress -- as we see by the Bible verses below -- so doesn't it make sense that the entire Godhead would be present as well?:

"Where wast thou when I laid the foundations of the earth? declare, if thou hast understanding. Who hath laid the measures thereof, if thou knowest? or who hath stretched the line upon it? Whereupon are the foundations thereof fastened? or who laid the corner stone thereof; When the morning stars sang together, and all the sons of God shouted for joy?"
Job 38:4-7, KJV


But exactly what would prompt me to even boldly suggest that the entire Godhead must have been present during the process of creation? Well, my friends, please consider this verse:

"And the earth was without form, and void; and darkness was upon the face of the deep. And THE SPIRIT OF GOD moved upon the face of the waters."
Genesis 1:2, KJV


My friends, really stop and think about this. What actually is the Spirit of God if not the Holy Spirit? Did the Apostle John not clearly say that "there are three that bear record in heaven"? The Bible likewise teaches that in the mouth of TWO OR THREE witnesses every thought should be established, and that "in the multitude of counsellors there is safety", as we can easily determine by the following set of verses:

"This is the third time I am coming to you. In the mouth of two or three witnesses shall every word be established."
2 Corinthians 13:1, KJV


"Without counsel purposes are disappointed: but in the multitude of counsellors they are established."
Proverbs 15:22, KJV


"Where no counsel is, the people fall: but in the multitude of counsellors there is safety."
Proverbs 11:14, KJV


Does it not make perfect sense then that all three parts of the divine Godhead would bear witness to the creation of the world as well? For those of my readers who may not be aware of it, I have long taught and believed that the Holy Spirit is a creative force. In fact, I have for many years embraced the view that the Holy Spirit is a creative extension of the essence of God the Father himself. Jesus was filled with the Spirit, and look at all of the miraculous things He did by it. Likewise the Apostles. They also performed many miracles whereby people were healed and more. Furthermore, was it not the Holy Spirit who overshadowed Mary so that the embryo of Jesus Christ was miraculously placed in her womb? Consider this verse:

"And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God."
Luke 1:35, KJV


My dear friends, do you see the similarity between these two events that were separated by literally thousands of years? What difference is there -- if any -- between the Spirit of God moving upon the face of the waters -- which resulted in the creation of life on the Earth -- and the Spirit and the Power of God overshadowing Mary, so that a new life -- Jesus -- was created in her womb? None that I can tell. It was the very same creative force. We've already seen that all things were created by Jesus Christ by the authority and power of His Father. So again, in my view, the presence of the full Godhead during the Six Days of Creation does not seem like such a far-fetched idea at all.

Sadly, despite the convincing evidence I've just shared with you -- at least it is convincing in my opinion -- apparently, there are also Christians who balk at the idea of viewing the Hebrew word "elohyim" in its plural form in Genesis. Why is there such resistance? I obviously do not know for certain. However, I do suspect that many of them have been mentally conditioned by organized religion to believe that Genesis is referring to just one, singular God, and NOT to both God the Father and Jesus Christ being present there at the same time, and being involved in the creation process. It just does not sink in, I suppose.

To reiterate this key point, based on all of the verses I've shared with you, it is my personal understanding that during the creation process that is described in Genesis, the power actually came from God the Father, but it was executed by the Son, resulting in the known physical universe. As we learned earlier, the Apostle Paul wrote "of whom" when referring to God the Father and "by whom" when referring to Jesus. Let me share that verse with you one more time so as to refresh your memory:

"But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, BY WHOM ARE ALL THINGS, and we by him."
1 Corinthians 8:6, KJV


What worries me though, is the way in which some people try to get around this dilemma. As I've mentioned before, a new trend which seems to have developed in more recent years -- or at least I became aware of it in recent years -- is the belief that Jesus Christ is now God. In other words, He is NOT just the Son of God, He is supposedly God himself, which is contrary to all of the verses which I shared with you in part one of this same series. The simple fact that Jesus too must submit himself to the Father is a clear indication that He is NOT God. There is only one God, and that is obviously the Father. Yes, Jesus is a part of the Godhead, as I have already clearly established. However, He is NOT the Father. He is the Son. As Jesus said in the Gospel of Matthew:

"And call no man your father upon the earth: for one is your Father, which is in heaven."
Matthew 23:9, KJV


As I point out in a few other BBB articles, one big concern I have with this "Jesus is God" attitude is that I strongly suspect that people who adopt this erroneous position are playing right into the hands of the One World Religionists. "How so?" you may ask. Well, let me ask you a question. What is one of the biggest things which differentiates our faith from all of the other religions of the world? It is that we believe and proclaim that God the Father has a Son who gave his life for the sins of the world. This obviously makes our faith unique. It sticks out like a sore thumb. It cannot be melded into all of the rest of the world's religions. It is a thorn in the side of the One World Religionists who wish that we Christians would just go with the flow, and agree to the popular -- but very misguided -- belief that everyone the world over worships the same God.

However, understand this, my friends. When those Christians start promoting the belief that Jesus is God, it makes it a lot easier to blend our faith in with all the rest of them. For example, a Muslim might say "Oh sure! I call God "Allah", and you call God "Jesus, but it is one and the same God." Or perhaps a Hindu might say "We Hindus believe in a trinity which consists of Vishnu, Shiva and Brahma. You Christians also believe in a Holy Trinity as well. So we all basically worship the same God." Then there is the Jew who might say "We believe in HaShem/Adonai", and you Christians believe in Him as well, so we worship the same God." And on and on it goes. Yet they all leave out the main ingredient: Jesus.

So I hope you can see that in my opinion, the minute that we remove the uniqueness of Jesus Christ as the Son of God who died for the sins of the whole world, and reclassify him as God, we are heading for some serious trouble, and potential compromise with a One World Religion where there is one god who is called by many different names.

As I pointed out earlier, the Jews reject the plurality of the Hebrew word "elohyim" -- or "Elohim" -- when it is used in specific reference to the one true God. In my opinion, by so doing, they diminish the full, true meaning of the word. Please understand that it is NOT that they don't understand the plurality of this word. Of course they do. It is their language after all. In fact, if you take the time to study the word "gods" in the Old Testament, you will discover that in almost every single case, it is associated with Strong's Number 430, which is attached to the Hebrew word "elohyim". However, in every single case, "elohyim" is translated as "gods" -- plural -- and NOT as "God" in the singular form and capitalized.

So why is this differentiation made with regard to how the word "elohyim" is translated when it is referring to pagan gods, or to the true God of Israel? Well, as I explained in part two, according to the Brown, Driver, Briggs, Gesenius Hebrew Aramaic English Lexicon, after informing us that the word "elohyim" is the plural form of "el" -- or "eloah" -- and that it signifies rulers, judges, divine ones, angels or gods, the lexicon states "plural intensive-singular meaning". Another name for it is "plural of majesty". But exactly what does this mean? Online sources define it as follows:

----- Begin Quote -----

A plural intensive-singular (or plural of majesty) refers to a noun that is grammatically plural in form (usually ending in -im or -ot in Hebrew) but refers to a single, specific entity, emphasizing its great magnitude, power, or majesty. While the word looks plural, it takes singular verbs and adjectives.

Key Aspects of the Plural Intensive-Singular:

Definition: A linguistic feature used in Hebrew to express intensity, greatness, or high status, rather than numerical plurality (multiple items).

Example (Elohim): The word Elohim (אלהים) is the plural form of Eloah (god), but it is used over 2,500 times in the Hebrew Bible to refer to the one God of Israel. It translates as "God" (singular) rather than "gods" because it represents the "fullness of divine strength" or "majesty".

Grammatical Behavior: Despite the -im suffix, the word is accompanied by singular verbs, adjectives, and pronouns. For example, in Genesis 1:1, Elohim (plural noun) is paired with bara (singular verb: "he created").

----- End Quote -----

So as you can see, the reason why "elohyim" is translated in the singular form when referring to our Jewish and Christian God, and used with singular verbs and pronouns, even though it is actually the plural form of "el" or "eloah", is simply to emphasize the greatness, magnitude, power and majesty of the God of Israel, in contrast to the false, pagan gods of the heathen nations which surrounded Israel. That is the gist of it. As to when this linguistic practice began, there are a number of different theories, with one theory suggesting that the word may have been borrowed from the Canaanites, and then redefined in order to refer to the God of Israel. Feel free to research the issue online if you are interested in more information.

Personally, while I understand all of this, I still think that by using "elohyim" in the singular form in the Book of Genesis, whether intentional or not, it omits an important part of the creation story for anyone who does not have a fuller knowledge of the Scriptures. More specifically, such a person may not know what the Scriptures have to say with regard to Jesus being with the Father in the beginning, and Jesus being the actual Creator of all things under the close guidance and watchful eye of His Father.

At any rate, with all of the previous information, I've now shown you why I personally believe in the plurality of the Godhead, why I believe that Jesus Christ was with God the Father in the beginning in the Book of Genesis, and why I also believe that all things were actually created by Jesus Christ, under the authority, and with the given permission, of God the Father. These are my current beliefs. Of course, you can choose to agree or disagree with me as you wish. As I mentioned before, human nature seems to dictate that we can all read the same Bible verses, and yet walk away with a very different understanding regarding what we just read. ‭ Moving on to our next important point in this discussion, earlier, I shared the following Bible verse with you which is found in the very inspiring and prophetic Psalm Two. You will recall that this particular Psalm speaks of the Lord Jesus Christ's glorious victory over His enemies and how He receives His kingdom:

"I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee."
Psalm 2:7, KJV


As I mention in my series called "What Does the Only Begotten Son of God Really Mean?", for many years now, it has been my personal belief that when the Bible refers to Jesus as being the only begotten Son of God, it is highlighting the fact that Jesus was the only spiritual son of God -- meaning from the Heavenly Realm -- who was incarnated in human flesh by way of his physical birth through Mary. As I mention in that series, this is how the words beget, begat and begotten are normally used in the Scriptures. They are referring to human conception and birth. This meaning of the phrase seems to be verified by the following two verses which are found in the Epistle to the Hebrews:

"For unto which of the angels said he at any time, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee? And again, I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son? And again, when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world, he saith, And let all the angels of God worship him."
Hebrews 1:5-6, KJV


In my view, those verses are clearly describing the night of the Nativity in Bethlehem -- notice that it even says "into the world" so that we have no doubt concerning which birth the verses are referring to -- and even inform us how the Angels of God rejoiced at Jesus' birth to Mary. Many of you will obviously recognize that the previous verses are just a short recap of what we read in the Gospel of Luke, as we see by the following group of Bible verses:

"And there were in the same country shepherds abiding in the field, keeping watch over their flock by night. And, lo, the angel of the Lord came upon them, and the glory of the Lord shone round about them: and they were sore afraid. And the angel said unto them, Fear not: for, behold, I bring you good tidings of great joy, which shall be to all people. For unto you is born this day in the city of David a Saviour, which is Christ the Lord. And this shall be a sign unto you; Ye shall find the babe wrapped in swaddling clothes, lying in a manger. And suddenly there was with the angel a multitude of the heavenly host praising God, and saying, Glory to God in the highest, and on earth peace, good will toward men."
Luke 2:8-14, KJV


However, then we come across something rather interesting. While the previous Bible verses in Hebrews and Luke do seem to be referring to Jesus' physical birth into the world by way of Mary, we make another discovery in the Book of Acts. In Acts chapter thirteen, as the Apostle Paul was preaching in the synagogue in Antioch, after he had already shared a brief history of the Israelite nation with his audience, he stated in part the following words:

"God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee. And as concerning that he raised him up from the dead, now no more to return to corruption, he said on this wise, I will give you the sure mercies of David. Wherefore he saith also in another psalm, Thou shalt not suffer thine Holy One to see corruption. For David, after he had served his own generation by the will of God, fell on sleep, and was laid unto his fathers, and saw corruption: But he, whom God raised again, saw no corruption."
Acts 13:33-37, KJV


As you can plainly see, the Apostle Paul is informing all of his listeners that Psalm 2:7 is NOT referring to Jesus being created by God before the world began -- as Arians believe -- and NEITHER is Paul referring to how Jesus was born into the world by way of his mother, Mary. What Paul is in fact saying is that when Psalm 2:7 says "this day have I begotten thee", it is talking about how Jesus was raised from the dead, and was begotten -- or reborn -- anew. Now, if you remember what Psalm Two is all about, Paul's explanation does make perfect sense. After all, Jesus did NOT gain a victory over any of His or His Father's enemies, or even enter His kingdom when He was born physically through Mary. Those two things didn't happen until AFTER Jesus had been risen from the dead -- thus gaining a victory over sin and death -- and able to begin His rule in His kingdom. Do you understand?

This leads us to yet another Bible verse which is used by the believers in Arianism to supposedly prove that Jesus Christ was created by God, and therefore was not eternal in nature from before the world began. That verse is the following one, which was likewise written by the Apostle Paul:

"Who [meaning Jesus] is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:"
Colossians 1:15, KJV


In this particular case, the word "firstborn" is derived from the Koine Greek word "prototokos". This word is translated as "firstborn" seven times in the KJV Bible New Testament, as well as two times as "first begotten". Thayer's Greek English Lexicon explains that this word is specifically used for the firstborn of man or beast. However, it also states that this Koine Greek word is used in relation to Jesus Christ as the first born of all creation‭. But is it saying that God the Father actually created Jesus before the world began as the Arians like to propose, so that Jesus is not truly eternal? ‭ Actually, my friends, no it is not. In fact, if we continue reading down to verse eighteen in this very same chapter, we quickly come to understand exactly what the Apostle Paul is desiring his readers to understand when he writes the word "prototokos" -- or "firstborn" -- in verse fifteen above. Verse eighteen states as follows:

"And he [meaning Jesus] is the head of the body, the church: who is THE BEGINNING, THE FIRSTBORN FROM THE DEAD; that in all things he might have the preeminence."
Colossians 1:18, KJV


Aha! Do you see that? So the Apostle Paul is NOT referring to Jesus being created by God the Father before this world began. Neither is Paul referring to the fact that Jesus was born to Mary. Rather, exactly as we have already seen in the thirteenth chapter of the Book of Acts, Paul is once again clearly talking about how Jesus was essentially reborn when He was amazingly raised from the dead, three days and three nights after He was gruesomely and agonizingly crucified on a Roman cross, or stake. Jesus in fact fulfilled the very words He had spoken to the Pharisee Nicodemus in John 3, as we can easily determine by the following group of verses:

"Jesus answered and said unto him, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God. Nicodemus saith unto him, How can a man be born when he is old? can he enter the second time into his mothers womb, and be born? Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God. That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit. Marvel not that I said unto thee, Ye must be born again. The wind bloweth where it listeth, and thou hearest the sound thereof, but canst not tell whence it cometh, and whither it goeth: so is every one that is born of the Spirit."
John 3:3-8, KJV


To really drive the point home that this is what Psalm 2:7 really means, and what other verses likewise mean, when they boldly proclaim "Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee", consider the powerful impact that all of these verses have when they are put together side-by-side. The truth is simply undeniable, in my view:

"I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; THIS DAY HAVE I BEGOTTEN THEE."
Psalm 2:7, KJV


"For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he [Jesus] might be THE FIRSTBORN AMONG MANY BRETHREN."
Romans 8:29, KJV


"But now is Christ risen from the dead, AND BECOME THE FIRSTFRUITS OF THEM THAT SLEPT. For since by man came death, by man came also the resurrection of the dead. For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. But every man in his own order: CHRIST THE FIRSTFRUITS; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming."
1 Corinthians 15:20-23, KJV


"Who is the image of the invisible God, THE FIRSTBORN OF EVERY CREATURE . . . And he is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, THE FIRSTBORN FROM THE DEAD; that in all things he might have the preeminence."
Colossians 1:15, 18, KJV


"To the general assembly and CHURCH OF THE FIRSTBORN, which are written in heaven, and to God the Judge of all, and to the spirits of just men made perfect,"
Hebrews 12:23, KJV


"And from Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness, and the FIRST BEGOTTEN OF THE DEAD, and the prince of the kings of the earth. Unto him that loved us, and washed us from our sins in his own blood . . . I am he that liveth, and was dead; and, behold, I am alive for evermore, Amen; and have the keys of hell and of death."
Revelation 1:5, 18, KJV


"And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, THE BEGINNING OF THE CREATION OF GOD;"
Revelation 3:14, KJV


So, my friends, the more we dig into this subject, and dive even further into the Scriptures, we see that how Arianism interprets the aforementioned verses is totally wrong. It is quite evident that their doctrine concerning Jesus being a created being simply does NOT match up with what God's Word really has to say concerning this issue. The previous verses reveal that Jesus was the FIRST, or the BEGINNING, of a new race of creatures. He started it all. He's the FIRSTBORN and the FIRST BEGOTTEN of the dead. Christ is the FIRSTFRUITS of the resurrection, and ANYONE who places their faith in what He did for us will someday follow in His steps, be reborn in the Spirit and enter into a brand new life -- that is to say, ETERNAL LIFE -- where we will die no more! We will acquire bodies which are just like his, as we can also see by this group of Bible verses:

"Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into death: that like as Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life. For if we have been planted together in the likeness of his death, WE SHALL BE ALSO IN THE LIKENESS OF HIS RESURRECTION:"
Romans 6:4-5, KJV


"For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate TO BE CONFORMED TO THE IMAGE OF HIS SON, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren."
Romans 8:29, KJV


"Who shall change our vile body, THAT IT MAY BE FASHIONED LIKE UNTO HIS GLORIOUS BODY, according to the working whereby he is able even to subdue all things unto himself."
Philippians 3:21, KJV


"And as we have borne the image of the earthy, WE SHALL ALSO BEAR THE IMAGE OF THE HEAVENLY."
1 Corinthians 15:49, KJV


"Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, WE SHALL BE LIKE HIM; for we shall see him as he is."
1 John 3:2, KJV


Please go to part four for the conclusion of this series.

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